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Astronomy 12
Astronomer:
Final Exam Review
Part I- Multiple choice: Answer each question by shading the most appropriate bubble.
01. Astronomy is the study of
a. the stars and planets and their movements as well as their affects on the lives and behavior of
human beings.
b. the weather and of atmospheric processes.
c. the structure and evolution of the earth's crust.
d. everything in the universe that lies above Earth's atmosphere.
02. Which of the following terms would not be associated with astronomy?
a. horoscope
b. telescope
c. astrolabe
d. celestial sphere
03. A planet is an object which
a. occurs only in our solar system.
b. is too faint to see.
c. orbits a star.
d. does not generate its own energy from nuclear reactions
04. In astronomical terms, one brief description of a star is
a. a small point of light seen only at night.
b. a radiant body at least 3 million times as massive as the Earth.
c. a bright object with a five-pointed shape.
d. a body which shines from its own internal source of energy.
05. A galaxy is
a. a large cloud of gas.
b. an exploding star.
c. the object from which all other objects in the universe were formed.
d. a collection of a large number of stars bound by gravity.
06. A(n) _____ is the totality of all space, time, matter, and energy.
a. universe
b. galaxy
c. planet
d. star
07. Which of the following is arranged from the smallest to the largest in size?
a. planet, star, universe, galaxy
b. star, planet, galaxy, universe
c. planet, star, galaxy, universe
d. universe, galaxy, star, planet
08. What are constellations?
a. galaxies of stars
b. configurations of bright stars patterned by humans
c. areas of the sky, each 15 x 15 degrees
d. physical groupings of stars all at the same distance from Earth
09. The picture below shows Orion’s Belt.
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Orion’s Belt
Orion’s Belt is an example of a(n)
a. constellation.
b. asterism.
c. star cluster.
d. galaxy.
10. Which of the following terms is correct?
a. The Big Dipper is an asterism in the constellation Ursa Major.
b. Ursa Major is an asterism in the constellation of the Big Dipper.
c. Both the Big Dipper and Ursa Major are constellations.
d. Both the Big Dipper and Ursa Major are asterisms.
11. A band of the celestial sphere extending on either side of the ecliptic that represents the path of
the different celestial bodies (i.e. Moon, Sun, planets) and contains constellations like Gemini and
Aquarius is called the
a. North Celestial Pole.
b. South Celestial Pole.
c. Celestial Equator.
d. Zodiac.
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12. An imaginary sphere of infinite extent with Earth at its center on which the stars, planets, and
other heavenly bodies appear to be located is known as the
a. Zodiac.
b. celestial sphere.
c. atmosphere.
d. Valhalla.
13. Which one of the following statements is true about the celestial coordinates known as "right
ascension" and "declination"?
a. They change from one day to the next due to the Earth's rotation.
b. They are measured with respect to the observer's local zenith and horizon.
c. They are fixed in space with respect to Earth's axis and the Sun's direction at the vernal equinox.
d. They were used by the ancient Greeks to determine the size of the Sun.
14. FILL IN THE BLANKS: Declination is analogous to geographical ______________. Right
ascension is analogous to geographical ______________.
a. latitude; longitude
b. longitude; latitude
c. north pole; south pole
d. south pole; north pole
15. The time needed for a star on the celestial sphere to make one complete rotation in the sky is
referred to as a
a. sidereal month.
b. solar year.
c. sidereal day.
d. solar day.
16. The period of time between the instant when the Sun is directly overhead to the next time it is
directly overhead is referred to as a
a. sidereal month.
b. solar year.
c. sidereal day.
d. solar day.
17. Relative to the stars on the celestial sphere, over the course of a year, the ecliptic is the
apparent path of what celestial body?
a. Moon
b. Sun
c. Alpha Centauri
d. Earth
18. The Sun rises in the east and sets in the west because
a. the Earth rotates on its axis.
b. the Earth revolves around the Sun.
c. the Moon revolves around the Earth.
d. the Earth ‘wobbles’ on its axis.
19. The point on the ecliptic where the Sun is at its northernmost point above the celestial equator,
occurring on or near June 21, is known as
a. winter solstice.
b. vernal equinox.
c. summer solstice.
d. autumnal equinox.
20. The point on the ecliptic where the Sun is at its southernmost point below the celestial equator,
occurring on or near December 21, is known as
a. winter solstice.
b. vernal equinox.
c. summer solstice.
d. autumnal equinox.
21. The date on which the Sun crosses the celestial equator moving southward, occurring on or
near September 22 is known as
a. winter solstice.
b. vernal equinox.
c. summer solstice.
d. autumnal equinox.
22. The date on which the Sun crosses the celestial equator moving northward, occurring on or
near March 21.
a. winter solstice.
b. vernal equinox.
c. summer solstice.
d. autumnal equinox.
23. The time required for the constellations to complete once cycle around the sky and return to
their starting points, as seen from a given point on Earth, is referred to as a
a. synodic month.
b. sidereal month.
c. tropical year.
d. sidereal year.
24. The time interval between one vernal equinox and the next is referred to as a
a. synodic month.
b. sidereal month.
c. tropical year.
d. sidereal year.
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25. The slow but relatively uniform motion of the earth's rotational axis that causes changes in the
coordinate systems used for mapping the sky is known as
a. penumbra.
b. parallax.
c. precession.
d. phase.
26. The appearance of the sunlit face of the Moon at different points along its orbit, as seen from
Earth, is referred to as a
a. parallax.
b. phase.
c. lunar eclipse.
d. solar eclipse.
27. A _____ eclipse occurs whenever the Moon passes through some portion of the Earth's
shadow.
a. solar
b. lunar
c. total
d. partial
28. A _____ eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between Earth and the Sun, thereby obscuring
Earth's view of the Sun.
a. solar
b. lunar
c. total
d. partial
29. The darkest part of the shadow is called the
a. penumbra.
b. umbra.
c. baseline.
d. dark zone.
30. The part of a shadow where the light source is only partially blocked is called the
a. penumbra.
b. umbra.
c. baseline.
d. light zone.
31. The difference in position of a star as seen from the Earth at different locations around the orbit
of the Sun is known as
a. triangulation.
b. transit.
c. stellar parallax.
d. precession.
32. During its orbital period, as a planet moves closer to the Sun, the orbital velocity of the planet
___.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
33. According to Newton’s law of universal gravitation, the force of attraction between any two
masses is directly related to the ___.
(a) distance between the masses
(b) product of the two masses
(c) velocity of the two masses
(d) sum of the two masses
34. According to Kepler, planetary orbits are _________ in shape.
a. elliptical b. circular c. spiral d. wavy
35. What are the four Terrestrial Planets?
(a) Charon, Earth, Uranus, Mars
(b) Mars, Venus, Mercury, Earth
(c) Venus, Pluto, Mercury, Jupiter
(d) Neptune, Uranus, Sol, Jupiter
35. What are the four Jovian Planets?
(a) Saturn, Neptune, Jupiter, Uranus
(b) Mars, Ceres, Mercury, Saturn
(c) Uranus, Mercury, Mars, Neptune
(d) Charon, Neptune, Uranus, Mars
36. What is another name for an interstellar gas cloud?
(a) Nebula
(b) Coma
(c) Corona
(d) Solar wind
37. What solar system object revolves around the Sun, has enough gravity to form a nearly round
shape, and have no other objects of similar size in it’s orbit?
(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Meteoroid
(d) Asteroid
38. Which of the following set of conditions are most likely to result in a magnetic field in a planet?
(a) Liquid and electrically-conducting material in its interior and rapid rotation.
(b) Closeness to Sun.
(c) Iron core and slow rotation.
(d) Solid surface containing iron and slow rotation.
39. The age of the solar system has been measured by radioactive dating. Which of the following
objects gives the most precise value for this age?
(a) the oldest rocks from the Moon
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(b) the oldest rocks on the Earth
(c) the oldest meteorites
(d) the rocks in Mr. Jennings’ head
40. What method has been used in the successful search for planets around stars other than the
Sun?
(a) Hubble Space Telescope photography of faint, nearby companions of stars
(b) detection of the spectral signature of methane gas near the star, since this gas is known to be a
major constituent of the atmospheres of major planets
(c) measurement of the "wobble" of a star, caused by the orbital motion of the planet, detected
either by accurate positional measurement of the star or by spectral Doppler shifts in the stars
spectrum
(d) detection of the bending of light due to strong gravitational fields between Earth and the star
system.
41. What happens when an object gains more matter through its gravitational pull.
(a) Accumulation (b) Accretion (c) Evaporation (d) Outgassing
42. What is the outward flow of charged particles from the sun called?
(a) Out gassing
(b) Nova
(c) Evaporation (d) Solar wind
43. What is a planet that revolves around a star, other than our sun?
(a) protoplanet (b) planetesimal (c) extrasolar planet (d) exotroid
44. Using Bode’s Law for planetary orbital radii, what is the next number in the sequence of
numbers:
0.4, 0.7, 1.0, 1.6, 2.8, ____
(a) 10.0 (b) 5.2 (c) 4.8 (d) 4.4
45. Light has a particle nature, and these particles are called photons. Which region of the
electromagnetic spectrum has the highest energy photons?
(a) gamma ray
(b) ultraviolet
(c) visible
(d) infrared
46. A source of light moves toward you. According to the Doppler effect
(a) the frequency of the light will increase.
(b) the frequency of the light will decrease.
(c) the wavelength of the light will increase.
(d) the velocity of the light will increase.
47. The spectral classification of a star is closely related to the star’s
(a) brightness.
(b) luminosity.
(c) surface temperature.
(d) distance.
48. How does the H-R diagram help astronomers identify stars?
(a) It plots a star’s mass and core temperature, which allows astronomers determine the
colour and region of where star is formed.
(b) It plots a star’s luminosity and spectrum, which allows astronomers determine the size of
the star.
(c) It plots a star’s luminosity and surface temperature, which allows astronomers determine
the type of star, size of star, and the star’s stage of evolution.
(d) It plots a star’s size and surface temperature, which allows astronomers determine its
region of origin.
49. What is the Main Sequence?
(a) The evolutionary path, as seen on the H-R diagram, that a star follows throughout
its life.
(b) The region on the H-R diagram where, once they are formed. new stars rest for most of
their lives.
(c) The sequence of events a star follows from its formation to supernova.
(d) The region on the H-R diagram where protostars first appear.
50. Define hydrogen burning.
(a) The formation of a hydrogen gas cloud, also known as a nebula.
(b) The chemical combustion of hydrogen.
(c) the separation of the hydrogen envelope to form a planetary nebula.
(d) The formation of helium by fusing hydrogen together.
51. When a star’s gravitational force pulling inwards and its internal pressure pushing outward are
balanced, it is considered to be in what?
(a) Hydrostatic equilibrium
(b) Supernova
(c) Structural Balance
(d) Proton-proton fusion
52. What is a helium flash?
(a) The rapid fusion of helium in a red giant’s core.
(b) An explosion that creates a planetary nebula.
(c) A type of solar flares that occurs on the surface of sun-type stars.
(d) A flash of white light that occurs when a star collapses into a white dwarf.
53. What is a planetary nebula?
(a) The destroyed remains of a planetary solar system when a sun-type star expands
to a red giant.
(b) The ejected envelope of a red giant that was formed from a sun-type star.
(c) The disk of material around a protostar that will eventually form planetary system.
(d) The initial massive gas cloud that stars and planets are formed from.
54. A white dwarf found in a binary system suddenly brightens, settles back down in a few months,
and has the possibility to repeat. What is this called?
(a) Red Giant
(b) Carbon-detonation supernova (Type One)
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(c) Planetary nebula
(d) Core collapsing supernova (Type Two)
55. High-mass protostars evolve into main-sequence stars
(a) more quickly than low-mass protostars because their stronger gravity speeds up their collapse.
(b) more quickly than low-mass protostars because their higher core temperature speeds up their
collapse.
(c) more slowly than low-mass protostars because their stronger gravity slows their collapse.
(d)s more slowly than low-mass protostars because their higher core temperature slows their
collapse.
56. In which of the following types of galaxies would you be least likely to find a newly-formed star?
a) Elliptical
b) Spiral
c) Irregular
Use the diagram below to answer the next 3 questions:
57. Region #1 is referred to as the galactic _____.
a) halo
b) disk
c) bulge
d) cluster
58. Region #2 is referred to as the galactic _____.
a) halo
b) disk
c) bulge
d) cluster
59. Region #3 is referred to as the galactic _____.
a) halo
b) disk
c) bulge
d) cluster
60. What does Hubble’s law tell us about how galaxies are moving?
a) All galaxies are moving away from us at the same velocity.
b) Galaxies close to us are receding from us slowly, and galaxies farther from us are receding
more rapidly.
c) Galaxies close to us are receding from us rapidly, and galaxies farther from us are receding
more slowly.
d) Galaxies have random distribution of velocities—there is no pattern.
61. The cosmic microwave background radiation is
a) all of the radiation currently existing in the universe produced by all possible sources.
b) all of the radiation emitted by stars since the first stars were born.
c) leftover radiation from the original Big Bang that has been tremendously redshifted by the
expansion of the universe.
d) radio emission from various radioactive galaxies.
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Part II- Short Answer: Answer each question on the test paper in the space provided.
49. Label the various parts of the celestial sphere below:
A ___________________________
B ___________________________
C ___________________________
D ___________________________
E ___________________________
50. Explain how right ascension and declination are used to locate objects in the sky.
51. The solar day is 3.9 minutes longer than the sidereal day. Why is this so?
52. Why does Earth experience seasons? Be sure to mention Earth’s rotational axis and the Sun’s energy in your answer.
53. The sidereal year is about 20 minutes longer than the tropical year.
a. Why is this so?
b. If modern calendars were based on the sidereal year, what would be the effect on timekeeping?
54. Label the phases of the Moon. Indicate phase name below its image.
New Moon
55. One sidereal month is 27.3 days. One synodic month is 29.5 days. Explain this difference.
56. Draw a diagram that would illustrate a lunar eclipse.
57. Draw a diagram that would illustrate a solar eclipse. Indicate the regions on Earth’s surface where total and partial
eclipses would be seen.
58. Explain how astronomers use triangulation to find stellar distances. You can use the astronomical unit calculation activity
as an example.
59. How does the Earth’s axial tilt of 23.5o determine why is it hotter in the summer and colder in the winter in the Northern
Hemisphere?
60. Recall the night-time observation assignment that required you to locate the approximate location of the North Celestial
Pole in the sky. If you were a student in Astronomy 12 in the year 15 000 C.E., how would this task be different?
61. Tides are periodic rises and falls of large bodies of water. Tides are caused by the gravitational interaction between the
Earth and the Moon; the Sun also exerts a gravitational attraction on the Earth but to a lesser degree. The gravitational
attraction causes the oceans to bulge out in the direction of the moon. Another bulge occurs on the opposite side, since
the Earth is also being pulled toward the moon (and away from the water on the far side). Since the earth is rotating while
this is happening, two tides occur each day. Spring tides are especially strong tides (they do not have anything to do with
the season Spring). Neap tides are especially weak tides. Given all these points, draw diagrams of that illustrate the
difference between spring and neap tides.
62. Construct a Venn Diagram comparing and contrasting the geocentric and heliocentric models of the universe.
63. Draw a label a diagram that illustrates the geocentric model of the solar system. Be sure to include the following parts:
deferent, epicycle, planet, Earth, Sun.
64. Define perihelion and aphelion.
65. State Kepler’s 3 Laws of Planetary Motion.
66. State Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation.
67. State Newton’s three laws of motion.
68. The orbital distance from Saturn to the Sun is approximately 10.0 A.U. Using Kepler’s 3 rd Law of Planetary Motion (P2 =
a3), what is the period of Saturn (or the time it takes Saturn to revolve around the Sun)?
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69. It takes Mars 688 days to revolve around the Sun. What is its orbital distance from the Sun?
70. State Newton’s revisions to Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion.
71. State Bode’s Law. Compare its usefulness and accuracy to Kepler’s 3rd Law of Planetary Motion.
72. Use Bode’s Law to predict the orbital radius of the Asteroid Belt.
73. Using Newton’s law of gravitation, if the distance between a planet and the Sun increases by a factor of 4, how does the
force of gravity between the planet and Sun change?
74. List Newton’s laws of motion and an example for each.
75. List the major types of structures in the solar system, from the largest to the smallest mass.
76. Why is Pluto no longer considered a planet?
77. Explain how the planets in our solar system were formed. Describe the difference between how terrestrial and jovian
planets were formed. Use diagrams, if needed.
78. A star is has a parallax of 0.02 arcseconds. How far away is this star?
79. Describe the methods by which extrasolar planets are detected.
80. A star has a surface temperature of 10 000 K. What is the peak wavelength (in meters) of light emitted from the surface?
SHOW ALL WORK & CALCULATIONS
81. Describe at least three properties of a star that an astronomer can deduce from its spectrum.
82. If a red star and a blue star have the same radius and brightness, which one is farther from Earth? Explain why.
83. If a red star and a blue star have both appear equally bright and both are the same distance from Earth, which one has the
larger radius? Explain why.
84. Complete tree diagram to the right: describe the two types of supernovas.
77. Complete table below: For each STAGE, write the letter of its STAGE DESCRIPTION in the corresponding blank. See #7
as an example.
H-R Diagram
Stage
(7 to 14)
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Stage Description
H-R Diagram
Stage
(7 to 14)
7. ___F___
8. _______
9. _______
Stage Description
A.
B.
C.
D.
10. _______
11. _______
12. _______
13. _______
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
14. _______
J.
K.
L.
M.
Black Dwarf
Planetary Nebula
Helium Flash
Carbon core
expands and star
returns to a balance
state.
Supernova
New Star
Oxygen fusion
Carbon burning
Forms a helium
core as it leaves the
main sequence
Protostar
Fragmentation
Carbon core
contracts and star
climbs Giant branch
again.
White dwarf
78. Explain the general formation of a sun-type star (i.e. Steps 1-6).
79. Complete the Venn diagram to the right in order to compare the history of high mass stars with low mass stars (Hint: think
the formation, evolution and death of the different stars).
80. A star has a mass of 8.5 solar masses. Predict what will happen to this star when it leaves the Main Sequence on the HR
Diagram.
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81. Using the Hubble Classification of Galaxies below, classify the four galaxies.
82. Explain why Hubble’s Classification System cannot be used as an evolutionary path of galaxies.
83. Describe the dark-matter problem. How is dark matter detected in the Universe?
84. How is the formation of spiral and elliptical galaxies related to the initial rate of star formation in the protogalactic nebulae
from which they were formed?
85. The Universe is considered to be both homogenous and isotropic. Explain the difference between these terms.
86. Using Hubble’s Law (v = H0 x d), find the velocity of a galaxy that is 100 Mpc from the Milky Way Galaxy.
(Note: H0 = 74.3 km/s/Mpc)
87. Describe four pieces of evidence that suggest that the Big Bang is the best model for describing the formation of the
universe.
88. Contrast three possible fates of the Universe in the future. Relate each fate to the Universe’s critical density. Which fate
do cosmologists feel is most likely to occur?
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