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ES review
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the
main areas of Earth science?
a. geology
b. oceanography
c. astrology
d. astronomy
4. The theory of plate tectonics helps
scientists explain ____.
a. how ocean currents move over Earth’s surface
b. why hurricanes occur
c. how earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur
d. why Earth’s core is less dense than the mantle
2. The area of Earth science that examines the
physical and biological changes that have
occurred in Earth’s past is called ____.
a. meteorology
b. oceanography
c. physical geology
d. historical geology
5. What is the driving force for the movement of the
lithospheric plates?
a. heat from the sun
b. unequal distribution of heat within Earth
c. heat in the atmosphere
d. unequal distribution of heat in the oceans
6. According to the plate tectonics model, what layers
form Earth’s rigid, mobile plates?
a. inner and outer core
b. upper and lower mantle
c. crust only
d. crust and uppermost mantle
3. The outer planets—Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and
Neptune—are made up of ____.
a. hydrogen, helium, and water
b. iron, nickel, and carbon dioxide
c. carbon, oxygen, and methane
d. water, carbon dioxide, ammonia, and methane
7. In Figure 1-2, what is the distance from point B to
point C?
a. 4 miles
b. 6 miles
c. 5 kilometers
d. 4 kilometers
8. In Figure 1-2, what is the approximate difference in
elevation between point E and point D?
a. 7500 feet
b. 1000 feet
c. 750 feet
d. 1500 feet
1
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
9. In Figure 1-2, what is the elevation of Sugar Loaf
Mountain?
a. 11,300 feet
b. 15,000 feet
c. 1130 feet
d. 10,000 feet
15. Which of the following statements about the
chemical combination of atoms to form compounds
is NOT true?
a. Compounds form when atoms are more stable
in a combined form.
b. When atoms combine, they gain, lose, or share
electrons.
c. When atoms combine, they are at a lower
energy state.
d. Compounds form when atoms are less stable in
a combined form.
10. Earth is considered a system because all of
its parts ____.
a. represent separate closed systems
b. interact
c. were formed at the same time
d. are powered by the same energy source
16. Compounds with high melting points have ____.
a. covalent bonds
b. metallic bonds
c. ionic bonds
d. no chemical bonds
11. The sun’s energy drives which of the following
processes?
a. volcanic eruptions
b. earthquakes
c. weather and ocean circulation
d. mountain building
17. The process of mineral formation from magma is
called ____.
a. evaporation
b. precipitation
c. crystallization
d. melting
12. Which of the following is an example of a
renewable resource?
a. iron
b. petroleum
c. energy from flowing water
d. coal
18. The building block of the silicate minerals is called
the ____.
a. silicon-oxygen tetrahedron
b. aluminum-oxygen tetrahedron
c. silicon-oxygen triangle
d. silicon-aluminum triangle
13. A scientific hypothesis can become a
theory if ____.
a. the entire scientific community accepts
it
b. the hypothesis is tested extensively and
competing hypotheses are eliminated
c. there are no other competing
hypotheses
d. the hypothesis can be tested at least
once
19. The most common mineral group in Earth’s crust is
the ____.
a. oxides
b. carbonates
c. sulfides
d. silicates
14. Atoms containing the same numbers of protons and
different numbers of neutrons are ____.
a. isotopes
b. ions
c. neutrons
d. compounds
20. Which of the following properties is generally the
least useful in identifying minerals?
a. hardness
b. streak
c. cleavage
d. color
2
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
21. The appearance or quality of light reflected from
the surface of a mineral is called ____.
a. streak
b. color
c. cleavage
d. luster
23. What property can be used to distinguish talc and
gypsum?
a. Talc has a soapy feel.
b. Gypsum has a soapy feel.
c. Talc fizzes with hydrochloric acid.
d. Gypsum can scratch glass.
22. How could you determine if a sample of gold is
pure?
a. Compare the sample’s density with that of pure
gold.
b. Compare the sample’s color with that of pure
gold.
c. Determine whether the sample is magnetic.
d. Determine whether the sample will fizz in
contact with hydrochloric acid.
24. What is a naturally occurring, solid mass of mineral
or mineral-like matter?
a. a rock
b. a mineral
c. lava
d. a fossil
3
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
25. In Figure 3-1, what process or processes would be
occurring in the part of the rock cycle labeled E?
a. cooling
b. melting
c. compaction and cementation
d. weathering and erosion
27. If granite undergoes high temperatures and high
pressures at depth within Earth, what type of rock
will be formed? Assume that the granite does not
melt.
a. a sedimentary rock
b. a metamorphic rock
c. magma
d. an igneous rock
26. In Figure 3-1, what type of rock should occur in the
part of the rock cycle labeled F?
a. igneous
b. metamorphic
c. lava
d. sedimentary
28. What type of rocks are formed by processes
powered by the sun?
a. metamorphic rocks
b. sedimentary rocks
c. igneous rocks
d. No rocks are formed by energy from the sun.
4
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
29. Where is the energy source found that drives the
processes that form igneous and metamorphic
rocks?
a. the sun
b. the wind
c. Earth’s interior
d. moving water
31. Lava that cools so quickly that ions do not have
time to arrange themselves into crystals will form
igneous rocks with a ____.
a. porphyritic texture
b. glassy texture
c. coarse-grained texture
d. fine-grained texture
30. When large masses of magma solidify far below
Earth’s surface, they form igneous rocks that have
a ____.
a. glassy texture
b. clastic texture
c. fine-grained texture
d. coarse-grained texture
32. What type of composition does an igneous rock
have that contains mostly plagioclase feldspar and
about 30 percent dark silicate minerals?
a. granitic
b. basaltic
c. andesitic
d. ultramafic
5
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
33. According to Figure 3-2, which of the following is
responsible for the formation of rock gypsum?
a. weathering and erosion
b. cooling of magma
c. precipitation from a water solution
d. recrystallization from high temperatures and
high pressures
36. Sedimentary rocks with ripple marks suggest that
the rocks formed ____.
a. along a beach or stream bed
b. when ancient animals walked over them
c. from the shell fragments of ancient
sea-dwelling animals
d. when wet mud dried and shrank
34. According to Figure 3-2, what type of rock is
composed of very fine crystalline quartz?
a. chalk
b. sandstone
c. rock gypsum
d. flint
37. Most metamorphic processes take place ____.
a. several hundred kilometers below Earth’s
surface
b. a few kilometers below Earth’s surface
c. just below Earth’s surface
d. at Earth’s surface
35. Which of the following is a use for fossils found in
sedimentary rocks?
a. interpreting past environments
b. indicating when the rock formed
c. matching rocks of the same age found in
different places
d. all of the above
38. Which of the following metamorphic rocks would
most likely have formed at the highest temperatures
and pressures?
a. gneiss
b. schist
c. slate
d. phyllite
6
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
39. In which of the following settings would a
metamorphic rock most likely form?
a. an ocean floor
b. a desert
c. 8 kilometers below Earth’s surface
d. on the slopes of an active volcano
41. A metamorphic rock can be classified according to
its ____.
a. density and texture
b. texture and composition
c. color and composition
d. density and color
40. What rock-forming process occurs when hot
magma forces its way into rock?
a. regional metamorphism
b. biochemical sedimentation
c. contact metamorphism
d. deposition
42. Which of the following is an example of a
renewable resource?
a. cotton
b. copper
c. natural gas
d. coal
43. In which layer will liquid petroleum be found in the
oil trap shown in Figure 4-1?
a. layer F
b. layer C
c. layer D
d. layer E
45. Most metallic ores are produced by which two
types of processes?
a. cementation and compaction
b. igneous and metamorphic
c. igneous and sedimentary
d. metamorphic and sedimentary
44. Which of the following is a drawback to the use of
oil shale to produce energy?
a. Most of the world’s oil shale occurs in
politically unstable countries.
b. Processing, mining, and waste disposal are
expensive.
c. Oil shale occurs only in areas with plentiful
water resources for processing.
d. Oil shale can be mined only in arid regions.
46. Vein deposits are usually produced by ____.
a. cementation and compaction
b. hydrothermal solutions
c. weathering
d. density sorting
7
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
54. Which of the following causes earthquakes?
a. elastic rebound
b. Richter scale
c. release of heat
d. frictional heating
47. What are nonmetallic resources commonly used
for?
a. manufacturing steel
b. producing energy
c. the nonmetallic elements they contain or their
physical and chemical properties
d. the metallic elements they contain or their
physical and chemical properties
55. During an earthquake, the ground surface ____.
a. moves only in a horizontal direction
b. moves only in a vertical direction
c. can move in any direction
d. does not move
48. It is estimated that, in the future, wind energy could
produce what percentage of the nation’s demand for
electricity?
a. 80–85%
b. 5–10%
c. 70–75%
d. 25–30%
56. Major earthquakes are sometimes preceded by
smaller earthquakes called ____.
a. aftershocks
b. focus shocks
c. surface waves
d. foreshocks
49. One problem with wind energy as a major source of
electricity is ____.
a. it is nonrenewable
b. it causes major air pollution
c. it does not work during the night
d. the expense of large tracts of land in populated
areas
57. The slow continuous movement that occurs along
some fault zones is referred to as ____.
a. slip
b. creep
c. fracture
d. a foreshock
50. Hydroelectric power is produced by ____.
a. falling water that turns a turbine
b. tides that pour through a dam barrier
c. hot water that comes from deep underground
d. electric current that flows across a dam
58. A seismogram shows that P waves travel ____.
a. at the same speed as surface waves
b. more slowly than S waves
c. at the same speed as S waves
d. faster than S waves
51. The greenhouse gas carbon dioxide helps to ____.
a. deflect harmful radiation from space
b. increase precipitation in arid areas
c. form clouds in the atmosphere
d. maintain warmth near Earth’s surface
59. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of S
waves?
a. They travel more slowly than P waves.
b. They temporarily change the volume of
material by compression and expansion.
c. They shake particles at right angles to the
direction the waves travel.
d. They cannot be transmitted through water or
air.
52. Which of the following is NOT a land resource?
a. soil
b. forests
c. iron
d. wind
60. A travel-time graph can be used to find the ____.
a. focus of an earthquake
b. strength of an earthquake
c. damage caused by an earthquake
d. distance to the epicenter of an earthquake
53. Contour plowing is a soil conservation method that
involves ____.
a. plowing deeper into soil when planting
b. never planting crops on hills
c. plowing across hill slopes
d. flattening hills to create flat land before
plowing
8
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
61. According to Figure 8-1, when will the first P wave
be received, if an earthquake epicenter is
approximately 1800 kilometers from the seismic
station?
a. 3.5 minutes after the earthquake
b. 5.5 minutes after the earthquake
c. 6.6 minutes after the earthquake
d. 10.5 minutes after the earthquake
62. Use the graph in Figure 8-1 to determine the
difference in the travel-times between the first P
wave and the first S wave, if the seismic station is
4000 kilometers from the epicenter.
a. 10.0 minutes
b. 4.5 minutes
c. 5.2 minutes
d. 4.2 minutes
9
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
68. Evidence about ancient climates indicates that
____.
a. glacial ice once covered much of what is now
India and Australia
b. continents in the Northern Hemisphere today
were once centered over the South Pole
c. continents in the Southern Hemisphere today
were once centered over the North Pole
d. no continents occupied the Southern
Hemisphere
63. What instrument records earthquake waves?
a. seismogram
b. seismograph
c. Richter scale
d. barometer
64. Violent shaking from an earthquake can cause soil
and rock on slopes to fail and cause a ____.
a. fault
b. landslide
c. tsunami
d. sinkhole
69. The geographic distribution of the swimming
reptile Mesosaurus provides evidence that ____.
a. Europe was covered by a shallow sea when
Mesosaurus lived
b. a land bridge existed between Australia and
India
c. South America and Africa were once joined
d. the Atlantic Ocean was wider when
Mesosaurus lived than it is now
65. The Moho is ____.
a. the boundary between the outer and inner core
b. boundary between the crust and the mantle
c. the material of which the mantle is composed
d. an area of the mantle that will not transmit
seismic waves
66. Earth’s core is made of an alloy of ____.
a. iron and nickel
b. copper and iron
c. zinc and magnesium
d. iron and zinc
70. In the plate tectonic theory, a plate can be made up
of ____.
a. continental lithosphere only
b. oceanic lithosphere only
c. both continental and oceanic lithosphere
d. both continental and oceanic asthenosphere
67. The continental crust has the average composition
of ____.
a. gneiss
b. granite
c. basalt
d. limestone
71. What type of boundary occurs where two plates
move together, causing one plate to descend into
the mantle beneath the other plate?
a. transform fault boundary
b. divergent boundary
c. convergent boundary
d. transitional boundary
72. Deep ocean trenches are associated with ____.
a. ocean ridge systems
b. subduction zones
c. transform fault boundaries
d. rift zones
10
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
73. What feature is labeled B in Figure 9-1?
a. trench
b. ocean ridge
c. volcanic island arc
d. continental volcanic arc
77. Magnetic reversals ____.
a. cause the movements of tectonic plates
b. confirmed the existence of subduction zones
c. provide strong evidence for seafloor spreading
d. have never occurred during geologic time
74. Continental volcanic arcs are associated with what
type of plate boundary?
a. convergent continental-continental boundary
b. convergent oceanic-continental boundary
c. transform fault boundary
d. convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary
78. What do the strips of low-intensity magnetism
represent on the ocean floor?
a. areas where there is no magnetism
b. areas where the rocks have a normal polarity
c. areas where the rocks have a reversed polarity
d. areas of different types of rock
75. Why are subduction zones not commonly found at
convergent continental-continental boundaries?
a. Continental lithosphere is too buoyant to be
forced down into the mantle.
b. Subduction zones are never found at
convergent boundaries.
c. Oceanic lithosphere is too buoyant to be forced
down into the mantle.
d. Continental lithosphere is too dense to be
forced down into the mantle.
79. The Hawaiian Islands were formed when the
Pacific Plate moved over ____.
a. a subduction zone
b. an ocean ridge
c. the Aleutian Plate
d. a hot spot
80. The age of the rocks in the ocean basins was
determined by ____.
a. ocean drilling
b. the fit of continents across ocean basins
c. the depth of earthquake foci
d. the amount of magnetism in the rocks
76. Where are most transform faults found?
a. in California
b. joining two segments of a mid-ocean ridge
c. joining two segments of a subduction zone
d. in areas where two continents have collided
11
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
81. How does the age of seafloor sediments change
with increasing distance from the ocean ridge?
a. Age decreases.
b. Age stays the same.
c. Age increases.
d. Age varies without a pattern.
83. Which one of the following has NOT been
proposed as a mechanism of plate motion?
a. slab-pull
b. ridge-push
c. mantle convection
d. crust-core convection
82. The main source of downward convection flow in
the mantle is called ____.
a. ridge-pull
b. slab-pull
c. slab-push
d. ridge-push
84. What mechanism of plate motion is illustrated in
Figure 9-2?
a. seafloor spreading
b. slab-pull
c. ridge-push
d. magnetic reversal
86. Which list places the magma types in order of
decreasing viscosity (most viscous listed first)?
a. basaltic, andesitic, rhyolitic
b. rhyolitic, andesitic, basaltic
c. andesitic, basaltic, rhyolitic
d. basaltic, rhyolitic, andesitic
85. What type of plate boundary is illustrated in Figure
9-2?
a. divergent boundary
b. convergent oceanic-continental boundary
c. convergent continental-continental boundary
d. convergent oceanic-oceanic boundary
87. Which of the following is true about volcanic
blocks and bombs?
a. Blocks are semi-molten when ejected.
b. Bombs are larger than blocks.
c. Bombs are found closer to the volcano than
blocks.
d. Bombs often have a streamlined shape.
12
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
88. What type of volcano is built almost entirely from
ejected lava fragments?
a. cinder cone
b. composite cone
c. shield volcano
d. pahoehoe volcano
89. What type of volcano is illustrated in Figure 10-1?
a. volcanic neck
b. shield volcano
c. cinder cone
d. composite cone
93. A lens-shaped intrusive igneous mass close to
Earth’s surface is called a ____.
a. sill
b. laccolith
c. batholith
d. stock
90. Lava plateaus form when ____.
a. the top of a volcano collapses
b. fluid basaltic lava flows out of fissures
c. lahars create new landforms
d. pyroclastic flows erupt from volcanoes
94. Which of the following is true about batholiths?
a. They are intrusive igneous bodies.
b. They are larger than stocks.
c. They are associated with major mountain
ranges.
d. all of the above
91. How are intrusive igneous bodies classified?
a. by their size
b. by their shape
c. by their relationship to the surrounding rock
layers
d. all of the above
95. Magma forms when solid rock in the crust and
upper mantle ____.
a. melts
b. vaporizes
c. crystallizes
d. cools
92. Which of the following is NOT true about a
batholith?
a. It is considered a pluton.
b. It is the largest intrusive igneous body.
c. It may form the core of a mountain range.
d. It is often a small part of a sill.
13
Keep your eyes on your own test.
Form : A
96. Which of the following factors affects the melting
point of rock?
a. composition of the material
b. water content
c. confining pressure
d. all of the above
97. The volcanic landforms at divergent ocean plate
boundaries are ____.
a. oceanic ridges
b. volcanic island arcs
c. continental volcanic arcs
d. ocean trenches
98. If the feature labeled F in Figure 10-2 was exposed
to erosion and reached over 100 square kilometers
in area, it would be classified as a ____.
a. stock
b. batholith
c. dike
d. sill
100. Most intraplate volcanic activity occurs where
____.
a. oceanic plates diverge
b. hot magma descends into the mantle under a
plate
c. hot mantle plumes rise toward the surface
within a plate
d. oceanic and continental plates converge
99. What type of plate boundary resulted in the
volcanic activity illustrated in Figure 10-2?
a. divergent plate boundary
b. oceanic-oceanic convergent plate boundary
c. oceanic-continental convergent plate boundary
d. continental-continental convergent plate
boundary
14
ID: A
ES review
Answer Section
1. ANS: C
2. ANS: D
3. ANS: D
STA: 1.a
4. ANS: C
STA: 3.a | 3.d | 3.e
5. ANS: B
STA: 5.a
6. ANS: D
STA: 3.c
7. ANS: A
8. ANS: C
9. ANS: A
10. ANS: B
11. ANS: C
STA: 5.a | 5.b
12. ANS: C
13. ANS: B
14. ANS: A
15. ANS: D
16. ANS: C
17. ANS: C
18. ANS: A
19. ANS: D
20. ANS: D
21. ANS: D
22. ANS: A
23. ANS: A
24. ANS: A
STA: 3.c
25. ANS: C
STA: 3.c
26. ANS: D
STA: 3.c
27. ANS: B
STA: 3.c
28. ANS: B
STA: 3.c
29. ANS: C
STA: 3.c
30. ANS: D
STA: 3.c
31. ANS: B
STA: 3.c
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
OBJ: 1.1
OBJ: 1.1
OBJ: 1.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 1.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 1.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 1.5
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L1
L2
L2
L1
L1
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1.8
1.8
1.8
1.9
1.10
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L1
L1
L1
L2
L2
L1
L2
L1
L1
L1
L2
L2
L1
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1.12
1.13
2.3
2.4
2.5
2.7
2.8
2.9
2.10
2.11
2.13
2.14
3.1
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.4
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.4
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.6
1
ID: A
32. ANS:
STA:
33. ANS:
STA:
34. ANS:
STA:
35. ANS:
STA:
36. ANS:
STA:
37. ANS:
STA:
38. ANS:
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39. ANS:
STA:
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STA:
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STA:
42. ANS:
43. ANS:
44. ANS:
45. ANS:
46. ANS:
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48. ANS:
49. ANS:
50. ANS:
51. ANS:
STA:
52. ANS:
53. ANS:
54. ANS:
STA:
55. ANS:
STA:
56. ANS:
STA:
57. ANS:
STA:
58. ANS:
STA:
59. ANS:
STA:
60. ANS:
STA:
C
3.c
C
3.c
D
3.c
D
3.c
A
3.c
B
3.c
A
3.c
C
3.c
C
3.c
B
3.c
A
C
B
B
B
C
B
D
A
D
4.d | 8.b
D
C
A
3.d
C
3.d
D
3.d
B
3.d
D
3.d
B
3.d
D
3.d
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.7
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.8
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.9
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.10
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.10
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.11
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.11
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.11
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 3.12
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 3.15
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF:
DIF:
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OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
L1
L1
L2
L1
L2
L1
L1
L2
L1
L2
4.1
4.2
4.3
4.4
4.4
4.5
4.8
4.8
4.9
4.11
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
DIF: L1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 4.12
OBJ: 4.15
OBJ: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 8.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.4
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.4
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 8.5
2
ID: A
61. ANS:
STA:
62. ANS:
STA:
63. ANS:
STA:
64. ANS:
STA:
65. ANS:
66. ANS:
67. ANS:
68. ANS:
STA:
69. ANS:
STA:
70. ANS:
STA:
71. ANS:
STA:
72. ANS:
STA:
73. ANS:
STA:
74. ANS:
STA:
75. ANS:
STA:
76. ANS:
STA:
77. ANS:
STA:
78. ANS:
STA:
79. ANS:
STA:
80. ANS:
STA:
81. ANS:
STA:
82. ANS:
STA:
83. ANS:
STA:
84. ANS:
STA:
85. ANS:
STA:
A
3.d
C
3.d
B
3.d
B
3.d
B
A
B
A
1.c
C
1.c
C
3.a
C
3.b
B
3.a | 3.f
A
3.a | 3.b
B
3.b
A
3.b | 3.f
B
3.a | 3.b
C
3.a
C
3.a | 3.c
D
3.f
A
3.c
C
3.c
B
3.b
D
3.b
B
3.b
D
3.b
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 8.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 8.8
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
1
1
1
1
L2
L1
L1
L1
8.10
8.11
8.11
9.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.8
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.8
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.9
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.9
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.10
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.11
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.11
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.12
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.12
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.12
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.13
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.13
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 9.13
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 9.9
3
ID: A
86. ANS:
STA:
87. ANS:
STA:
88. ANS:
STA:
89. ANS:
STA:
90. ANS:
STA:
91. ANS:
STA:
92. ANS:
STA:
93. ANS:
STA:
94. ANS:
STA:
95. ANS:
STA:
96. ANS:
STA:
97. ANS:
STA:
98. ANS:
STA:
99. ANS:
STA:
100. ANS:
STA:
B
3.f
D
3.f
A
3.e | 3.f
D
3.e | 3.f
B
3.f
A
3.f
D
3.f
B
3.f
D
3.f
A
3.f
D
3.c
A
3.b | 3.f
B
3.b | 3.c
C
3.b
C
3.b
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.1
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.2
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.3
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.4
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.5
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.7
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.7
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.8
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.6
PTS: 1
DIF: L2
OBJ: 10.8
PTS: 1
DIF: L1
OBJ: 10.9
4