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Biology
FINAL EXAM 2014
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Mark your response on your answer sheet.
1. During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, the dominant land animals were
A. grazing mammals
B. human ancestors
C. amphibians
D. dinosaurs
2. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. Band B moved faster than band A.
B. Band A is smaller than band B.
C. Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.
D. Band B is more negatively charged than band A.
mRNA: CUCAAGUGCUUC
Genetic Code:
3. Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA in the diagram are
A. GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
B. GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG.
C. CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
D. CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
Final Exam
Biology
4. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the
mRNA strand was made?
A. GAGUUCACGAAG
B. AGACCTGTAGGA
C. CUCAAGUGCUUC
D. GAGTTCACGAAG
5. Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following is the series of amino acids encoded by the piece of
mRNA shown above?
A. Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
B. Val—Asp—Pro—His
C. Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
D. Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
6. DNA is copied during a process called
A. replication.
B. translation.
C. transformation.
D. transcription.
7. Unlike DNA, RNA contains
A. uracil.
B. adenine.
C. thymine.
D. phosphate groups.
8. What kind of cell (or cells) are used to make animal clones?
A. egg cell and sperm cell
B. body cell only
C. body cell and egg cell
D. egg cell only
9. When an organism dies, the nitrogen in its body
A. is released by the action of decomposers.
B. is immediately released into the atmosphere.
C. can never be reused by other living things.
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following types of RNA carries instructions for making proteins?
A. rRNA
C. tRNA
B. mRNA
D. All of the above
11. If the gene for seed color (yellow is dominant) and the gene for seed shape (round is dominant) in pea plants
were linked,
A. all of Mendel’s P plants would have produced wrinkled, green peas.
B. Mendel’s F1 plants would have shown a different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
shape.
C. all of Mendel’s F1 plants would have produced wrinkled, green peas.
D. Mendel’s F2 plants would have shown a different phenotype ratio for seed color and seed
shape.
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12. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural
adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the
A. birds’ different-shaped beaks.
B. length of the birds’ necks.
C. similarities of the birds’ embryos.
D. number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
13. The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the
A. less likely they are to be inherited together.
B. less likely they are to assort independently.
C. more likely they are to be linked.
D. less likely they are to be separated by a crossover during meiosis.
14. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?
A. Some codons do not specify an amino acid.
B. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids.
C. Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides.
D. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the “start” codon for
protein synthesis.
15. In the P generation, a true-breeding tall plant (dominant) is crossed with a true-breeding short plant
(recessive). The probability that an F2 plant will be tall is
A. 75%.
B. 25%.
C. 100%.
D. 50%.
16. Water and minerals needed by all organisms on Earth pass back and forth between the biotic and abiotic
portions of the environment in a process called
A. a biochemical pathway.
B. a trophic pathway.
C. a trophic cycle.
D. a biogeochemical cycle.
17. Charles Darwin’s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar
physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finch species
A. all eat the same type of food.
B. originated from a common ancestor.
C. acquired traits through use and disuse.
D. have grown larger since Darwin’s visit.
18. A change in the gene pool of a population due to chance is called
A. the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
B. natural selection.
C. genetic drift.
D. gene flow.
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19. Which of the following includes all the others?
A. plasmid
B. foreign gene
C. recombinant DNA
D. genetically modified bacterium
20. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
A. cut DNA.
B. recombine DNA.
C. extract DNA.
D. separate DNA fragments.
21. Oswald Avery showed that
A. cells missing protein and RNA were able to transform R cells into S cells and kill mice,
but cells missing DNA could not.
B. cells missing DNA, protein, and RNA were able to transform R cells into S cells and kill
mice.
C. cells missing DNA, protein, and RNA were not able to transform R cells into S cells and
kill mice.
D. cells missing DNA were able to transform R cells into S cells and kill mice, but cells
missing protein and RNA could not.
22. Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are
A. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.
B. determined by recessive factors only.
C. determined by dominant factors only.
D. not inherited by offspring.
23. The principles of probability can be used to
A. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.
B. predict the traits of the parents used in genetic crosses.
C. predict the traits of the offspring produced by genetic crosses.
D. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.
24. Which of the following assort independently?
A. chromosomes
B. two genes on the same chromosome
C. multiple alleles
D. codominant alleles
25. During genetic modification,
A. a cell’s own DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
B. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
C. a cell takes in DNA from another source.
D. a cell is mutated.
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26. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to
A. cure human diseases.
B. sequence the human genome.
C. identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive.
D. make a DNA fingerprint of every person’s DNA.
27. Avery’s experiments showed that bacteria are transformed by
A. RNA.
B. DNA.
C. proteins.
D. carbohydrates.
28. The primary producers in a grassland ecosystem would most likely be
A. insects.
C. algae.
B. bacteria.
D. grasses.
29. Precipitation and evaporation are important components of the
A. carbon cycle.
C. nitrogen cycle.
B. water cycle.
D. All of the above
30. What is an advantage of producing transgenic plants?
A. studying human genes
B. producing clones
C. using more pesticides
D. increasing herbicide resistance
31. Combining genes from different sources into a single DNA molecule is known as
A. DNA fingerprinting.
B. cloning.
C. PCR.
D. recombinant DNA technology.
32. What would Hershey and Chase have concluded if both radioactive phosphorus and radioactive sulfur were
found in the bacteria in their experiment?
A. The virus’s DNA was not injected into the bacteria.
B. The virus’s protein coat was not injected into the bacteria.
C. Genes are made of protein.
D. Both the virus’s protein coat and its DNA were injected into the bacteria.
33. Offspring that result from crosses between true-breeding parents with different traits
A. are true-breeding.
B. are called hybrids.
C. make up the F2 generation.
D. make up the parental generation.
34. The organic material in an ecosystem is called
A. biomass.
C. energy.
B. trophic level.
D. productivity.
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35. Humans affect the carbon cycle by
A. clearing forests.
B. burning fossil fuels.
C. destroying vegetation that absorbs carbon dioxide.
D. All of the above
36. Organisms that manufacture organic nutrients for an ecosystem are called
A. consumers.
C. producers.
B. predators.
D. omnivores.
37. A change that occur when part of a chromosome is repeated is called a
A. duplication.
B. translocation.
C. deletion.
D. inversion.
38. In going from one trophic level to the next higher level,
A. the amount of usable energy decreases.
B. the amount of usable energy increases.
C. the number of organisms increases.
D. None of the above
39. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequence
AAGCTT
TTCGAA
in a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to
produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long?
A. CT
B. AG
C. GC
D. AA
40. The primary function of DNA is to
A. prevent mutations.
B. control chemical processes within cells.
C. store and transmit genetic information.
D. make proteins.
41. Which of the following is NOT an example of chromosome damage?
A. insertion
B. deletion
C. duplication
D. inversion
42. A carrier of a recessive disorder
A. has two copies of the allele and does exhibit symptoms.
B. has two copies of the allele and does not exhibit symptoms.
C. has one copy of the allele and does not exhibit symptoms.
D. has one copy of the allele and does exhibit symptoms.
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43. Species with narrow niches
A. can tolerate a range of environmental conditions.
B. use a wide variety of resources.
C. are called specialists.
D. All of the above
44. On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
A. somewhat similar species to those on the mainland, with traits that suited their particular
environments.
B. species completely unrelated to those found in mainland South America.
C. species exactly like those found in mainland South America.
D. completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
45. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Females cannot have cystic fibrosis.
B. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
C. The father of a colorblind boy may be colorblind.
D. The mother of a colorblind boy must be colorblind.
46. Which of the following statements is true?
A. During RNA splicing, the exons are removed.
B. A exon is part of an intron.
C. An initial RNA transcript is longer than the gene from which the molecule was
transcribed.
D. Introns have complementary sequences in DNA.
47. All organisms in an ecosystem are linked together in a network of interactions. This quality is called
A. geochemical processes.
C. communication.
B. interdependence.
D. isolation.
48. In the past, mass extinctions encouraged the rapid evolution of surviving species
A. because they spared all organisms that had evolved convergently.
B. by providing new opportunities for them.
C. by changing developmental genes.
D. because they killed all organisms that had evolved together.
49. What does a cladistic analysis show about organisms?
A. the relative importance of each derived character
B. the general fitness of the organisms analyzed
C. the order in which derived characters evolved
D. all traits of each organism analyzed
50. A factor that keeps species separate is
A. different mating behaviors.
B. incompatible reproductive structures.
C. reproduction at different times.
D. any of the above
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51. What is produced during transcription?
A. RNA polymerase
B. RNA molecules
C. proteins
D. DNA molecules
52. An organism’s niche includes
A. when it eats.
B. what it eats.
C. where it eats.
D. All of the above
53. If a woman who is a carrier of a sex-linked trait married a man with the trait, the chance that a child would
have the trait would be
A. 50 percent.
B. 100 percent.
C. 25 percent.
D. 75 percent.
54. Sometimes, organisms that are not closely related look similar because of
A. convergent evolution.
B. cladistics.
C. punctuated equilibrium.
D. radiometric dating.
55. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding white-flowered plants,
all the offspring were purple because
A. they were true-breeding like their parents.
B. the allele for white-flowered plants is dominant.
C. the allele for purple-flowered plants is recessive.
D. the allele for purple-flowered plants is dominant.
56. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of
A. pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the percentage of purines.
B. purines in DNA is much greater than the percentage of pyrimidines.
C. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.
D. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
57. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 6
D. 9
58. Which of the following would not be included in a description of an organism’s niche?
A. when it reproduces
B. the humidity and temperature it prefers
C. its trophic level
D. its number of chromosomes
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Biology
59. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to
A. compare the phenotypes of different organisms.
B. determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive.
C. compare DNA samples from different sources.
D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes.
60. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing
each other’s inheritance?
A. principle of independent assortment
B. principle of dominance
C. principle of probabilities
D. principle of segregation
61. A stretch of DNA that varies among individuals is called a(an)
A. clone.
B. resistance gene.
C. antibiotic.
D. genetic marker.
62. Which of the following includes all the others?
A. nucleus
B. DNA molecule
C. chromosome
D. histone
63. What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live
harmless bacteria into mice?
A. The mice were unaffected.
B. The harmless bacteria died.
C. The mice died.
D. The disease-causing bacteria changed into harmless bacteria.
64. An analysis of derived characters is used to generate a
A. phylogenetic tree based on DNA structure.
B. traditional classification system.
C. fossil record.
D. cladogram.
65. Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA?
A. Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism.
B. Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule.
C. Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.
D. Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA.
66. Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?
A. a change in a DNA base
B. an extra chromosome
C. alleles
D. genes
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67. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most
biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of
A. the inheritance of acquired traits.
B. the needs of the organisms.
C. a common ancestor.
D. the struggle for existence.
Figure 13-1
68. What does Figure 13-1 show?
A. gel electrophoresis
B. polymerase chain reaction
C. DNA sequencing
D. a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment
69. Genes contain instructions for assembling
A. nucleosomes.
B. proteins.
C. pyrimidines.
D. purines.
70. If a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas, it will produce
A. green peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
B. yellow peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for green peas.
C. green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas.
D. both green peas and yellow peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas.
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71. When Gregor Mendel crossed a true-breeding tall plant with a true-breeding short plant, the F1 plants
inherited
A. an allele for tallness from the tall parent and an allele for shortness from the short parent.
B. an allele for shortness from each parent.
C. an allele for tallness from each parent.
D. an allele from only the tall parent.
72. Which of the following statements is false?
A. An organism’s proteins determine its genes.
B. The instructions for making some proteins are not specified by genes.
C. An organism’s genes determine its inherited traits.
D. Some genes code for enzymes.
73. During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a
portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
A. TTGCATG.
C. CCTAGCT.
B. GGATCGA.
D. AAGTATC.
74. A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT
A. the possible genotypes of the offspring.
B. the actual results of a genetic cross.
C. all possible results of a genetic cross.
D. the alleles in the gametes of each parent.
75. Variation in human skin color is a result of
A. codominance.
B. intermediate inheritance.
C. polygenic inheritance.
D. multiple alleles.
76. The study of the interaction of living organisms with each other and with their physical environment is called
A. geology.
C. health.
B. ecology.
D. economy.
77. Lethal dominant alleles are less common than lethal recessive alleles because
A. lethal recessive alleles usually have a large effect on carriers.
B. most people with dominant disorders die before producing offspring.
C. lethal dominant alleles cannot be caused by a natural mutation.
D. none of the above
78. The length of time required for half of the radioactive isotope in a sample to decay is its
A. half-life.
B. relative date.
C. geologic time scale.
D. radioactive date.
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Biology
79. Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?
A. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
B. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine
C. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
D. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
80. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape and live to reproduce.
Which best describes this situation?
A. Natural selection is a random process.
B. Individuals that function best tend to leave the most offspring.
C. Species remain unchanged throughout time.
D. An individual passes along acquired characteristics to the next generation.
Figure 14-1
81. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur
shown in Figure 14-1 are
A. acquired traits.
B. examples of natural variation.
C. examples of fossils.
D. vestigial structures.
82. In a pedigree, an unshaded symbol represents a
A. person without the trait.
B. person with the trait.
C. child.
D. deceased person.
83. If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently,
A. the genes are probably located close to each other.
B. the genes are probably located far apart from each other.
C. crossing over always occurs between the genes.
D. crossing over never occurs between the genes.
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Biology
84. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
A. heterozygous.
B. hybrid.
C. dominant.
D. homozygous.
85. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
A. 46
B. 2
C. 44
D. 23
86. The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
A. translocation.
B. cystic fibrosis.
C. nondisjunction.
D. Down syndrome.
87. Which type(s) of RNA is(are) involved in protein synthesis?
A. ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA only
B. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA
C. transfer RNA only
D. messenger RNA only
88. To produce genetically engineered bacteria that make a human protein, which of the following steps does a
scientist have to take first?
A. Insert the human gene for the protein into a plasmid.
B. Use a restriction enzyme to cut out the gene from human DNA.
C. Extract the protein from the bacterial culture.
D. Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid.
89. What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms?
A. PCR
B. cloning
C. genetic modification
D. DNA fingerprinting
90. Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
A. tRNA
B. anticodon
C. intron
D. amino acid
91. As a woman ages, the likelihood of having a baby with Down syndrome
A. decreases at first, then increases.
B. increases.
C. decreases.
D. does not change.
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Biology
92. A pedigree can be used to
A. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
B. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
C. determine whether a trait is inherited.
D. all of the above
93. The specific physical location in which a given species lives is called its
A. climate.
C. community.
B. habitat.
D. abiotic factor.
94. A cross of a black chicken (CBCB) with a white chicken (CWCW) produces all “blue” offspring (CBCW). This
type of inheritance is known as
A. polygenic inheritance.
B. multiple alleles.
C. incomplete dominance.
D. codominance.
95. DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
A. each with two new strands.
B. each with one new strand and one original strand.
C. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
D. each with two original strands.
96. In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. No F1 plants were short. Short plants
reappeared in the F2 generation because
A. they inherited an allele for shortness from one parent and an allele for tallness from the
other parent.
B. the allele for shortness is dominant.
C. the allele for shortness and the allele for tallness segregated when the F1 plants produced
gametes.
D. some of the F2 plants produced gametes that carried the allele for shortness.
97. As a result of nondisjunction during meiosis,
A. only two gametes may form instead of four.
B. the chromatids do not separate.
C. some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
D. it occurs during prophase.
98. RNA contains the sugar
A. ribose.
B. deoxyribose.
C. lactose.
D. glucose.
99. The three-domain system recognizes fundamental differences between two groups of
A. prokaryotes.
B. eukaryotes.
C. multicellular organisms.
D. protists.
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Biology
100. A group of organisms of different species living together in a particular place is called a
A. population.
C. biome.
B. habitat.
D. community.
101. Which of the following would you be least likely to see in a pedigree?
A. About half of the symbols are circles.
B. All of the symbols are unshaded.
C. All of the symbols are shaded.
D. All of the symbols are half-shaded.
102. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, certain individuals will leave more offspring on average
than do other individuals. Their survival is due to the
A. possession of inherited adaptations that are well-suited to the environment.
B. choices made by plant and animal breeders.
C. lack of competition within the species.
D. possession of adaptations developed through use.
103. Which type of RNA functions as a “blueprint” for protein synthesis?
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. RNA polymerase
104. Coal, oil, and natural gas
A. are formed from decayed plants.
B. are fossil fuels.
C. release carbon dioxide when they are burned.
D. All of the above
105. An ecosystem consists of
A. the soil, water, and weather.
B. a community of organisms.
C. energy.
D. All of the above
106. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
A. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
B. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
C. deoxyribose + phosphate group + uracil
D. ribose + phosphate group + thymine
107. Biological fitness is the ability of the individual to
A. live to reproductive age.
B. contribute to the gene pool of the next generation.
C. adapt to environmental conditions.
D. acquire new characteristics.
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Biology
108. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the
A. anticodon on the mRNA only.
B. codon on the tRNA only.
C. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached.
D. anticodon on the tRNA to which the amino acid is attached only.
109. What is an advantage of using genetically engineered bacteria to produce human proteins?
A. The human proteins produced by genetically engineered bacteria work better than those
produced by humans.
B. Genetically engineered bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.
C. The human proteins produced by genetically engineered bacteria last longer than those
produced by humans.
D. Genetically engineered bacteria can mass-produce pure human proteins.
110. Which of the following statements describe what all members of a population share?
A. They are geographically isolated from each other.
B. They are behaviorally isolated from each other.
C. They have identical genes.
D. They are members of the same species.
111. In the P generation, a true-breeding tall plant (dominant) was crossed with a true-breeding short plant. If
alleles did not segregate during gamete formation,
A. all of the F1 plants would be short.
B. some of the F1 plants would be tall and some would be short.
C. all of the F2 plants would be short.
D. all of the F2 plants would be tall.
112. Knowing the sequence of an organism’s DNA allows researchers to
A. reproduce the organism.
B. cut the DNA.
C. study specific genes.
D. mutate the DNA.
113. The sex-linked allele for colorblindness is located on
A. chromosome 21.
B. the X chromosome only.
C. the Y chromosome only.
D. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
114. What happens during the process of translation?
A. The cell uses information from messenger RNA to produce proteins.
B. Messenger RNA is made from DNA.
C. Transfer RNA is made from messenger RNA.
D. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
115. Gregor Mendel removed the male parts (stamens) from the flowers of some plants in order to
A. prevent hybrids from forming.
B. prevent blending.
C. prevent self-pollination.
D. prevent cross-pollination.
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Biology
116. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because
A. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
B. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
C. fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
D. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
117. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
A. AGCTTG.
B. GAUCCA.
C. TCGAAC.
D. GATCCA.
118. Most fossils form in
A. ice.
B. the sap of ancient trees.
C. rusty water.
D. sedimentary rock.
119. A man and a woman who are both heterozygous for normal skin pigmentation (Aa) produce an albino
offspring (aa). Which of Mendel’s principles explain(s) why the offspring is albino?
A. segregation only
B. independent assortment only
C. dominance only
D. dominance and segregation
120. If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the
samples contained
A. the same amount of DNA.
B. the same DNA molecules.
C. fragments of the same size.
D. all of the above
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ID: B
FINAL EXAM 2014
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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A
D
A
A
D
C
A
D
A
C
D
C
B
C
D
B
C
A
B
B
B
C
B
B
A
D
B
D
A
A
D
2
ID: B
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
A
C
B
B
C
C
B
D
B
C
B
C
C
A
A
D
D
A
B
D
D
B
B
C
D
D
D
C
B
A
B
A
D
D
D
D
3