Download Lecture #1: Bone Structure and Development

October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
Disclaimer: I do my best to write questions that are representative of the exam but I cannot make any guarantees.
Also, I have not included any images, whereas anatomical identification represents a relatively significant portion of
the exam. Questions 41-68 are therefore more of a learning exercise. Enjoy! -Steele
Lecture #1: Bone Structure and Development
1. The basic functional units of compact bone are:
A. Trabeculae
B. Osteons
C. Circumferential Lamellae
D. Canaliculi
2. The following cells share a common lineage except:
A. Osteoclasts
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteoprogenitors
3. Which of the following statements is true with regard to periosteum?
A. Periosteum is avascular
B. Periosteum ensheaths the entire surface of a bone
C. Periosteum contains osteoprogenitor cells
D. Periosteum is a type of epithelial tissue
E. All of the above are true
4. Osteocytes are situated in ___ and have cytoplasmic extensions that travel through_____ .
A. Canaliculi; Gap Junctions
B. Lacunae; Canaliculi
C. Central Canals ; Perforating Canals
D. Periosteum; Perforating Fibers
5. The condition where periosteum breaks free and calcifies regions of muscle is known as:
A. Myositis ossificans
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
6. During childhood, long bones increase in length via_________, and increase in width via_____.
A. Intramembranous Ossification; Appositional Growth
B. Endochondral Ossification; Appositional Growth
C. Endochondral Ossification; Intramembranous Ossification
D. Appositional Growth; Endochondral Ossification
7. During appositional bone growth, periosteal blood vessels are entrapped by bony tissue. As the
bone tissue undergoes subsequent remodeling, the blood vessel ultimately becomes a:
A. Marrow Cavity
B. Canaliculi
C. Circumferential Lamellae
D. Central Canal
8. Intramembranous ossification is initiated when
A. Hypertrophied chondrocytes autolyse, with subsequent calcification of the connective tissue matrix
B. Blood vessels penetrate the perichondrium, causing the cells to differentiate to osteoblasts
C. Mesenchymal cells cluster, differentiate, and secrete bone matrix within loose connective tissue
D. Blood vessels penetrate the epiphyses at both ends of a long bone
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
9. All of the following are a function of bone tissue except:
A. Protection of major organs
B. Storage of Lipids
C. Blood Cell Production
D. Synovial Fluid Production
E. Actually all of the above are true
10. Following a bone fracture, the osteoblasts that will initiate repair originate from the:
A. Periosteum
B. Endosteum
C. Marrow Cavity
D. Lacunae
Lectures #2-3: Anatomical Terminology and Skeletal Anatomy
11. In anatomical position, the first metarcarpal is __________ to the fifth metacarpal
A. Lateral
B. Distal
C. Medial
D. Proximal
12. The heart is ____________ to the ribcage
A. Superior
B. Cranial
C. Posterior
D. Deep
13. The thoracic and abdominopelivic cavities are separated via the:
A. Vertebral Column
B. Pelvic Floor
C. Mediastinum
D. Diaphragm
14. When you shake your head “no” (lateral rotation of head @ atlas-axis joint), your skull moves in which plane?
A. Negativity
B. Horizontal / Transverse
C. Sagittal
D. Frontal / Coronal
15. If you strike your tibia on the anterior surface and ½ way between the knee and ankle, you would experience
pain in the___________ region.
A. Crural
B. Sural
C. Femoral
D. Tarsal
16. The spinal cord enters the cranial cavity via the______, which is a feature of the _____bone.
A. Vertebral Foramen; Thoracic Vertebrae
B. Vertebral Foramen; Axis
C. Foramen Magnum; Occipital
D. Foramen Magnum; Parietal
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
17. The lumbar vertebrae are ___________ to the thoracic vertebrae.
A. Cranial
B. Caudal
C. Dorsal
D. Posterior
18. In the 9-region system, the spleen is located in the most superior and lateral region. Records might indicate that
a patient with an inflamed spleen is experiencing severe ____________ pain.
A. Left Hypochondriac
B. Left Epigastric
C. Left Lumbar
D. Left Abdominal
19. The sacrum articulates with all of the following bones except:
A. Paired Ileum Bones
B. Coccyx Bone
C. L5
D. Paired Ischium Bones
20. Which of the following is a function of sinuses:
A. Decrease the weight of the skull
B. Create resonance chambers for vocalized sounds
C. Protect entrances to the upper respiratory tracts
D. All of the above
21. The only bone(s) lacking an articulation with another bone is/are:
A. The Patellar Bones
B. The Hyoid Bone
C. The Floating Ribs
D. The Mandible
22. As you move caudally along the vertebral column, the size of the vertebral bodies_________, while the diameter
of the vertebral foramen__________.
A. Increases; Increases
B. Increases; Decreases
C. Decreases; Decreases
D. Decreases; Increases
23. The dens is a process of the __________ that allows for the ___________ to move in the transverse plane.
A. Atlas; Axis
B. Acetabulum; Thigh
C. Atlas; Occipital Bone
D. Axis; Skull
24. Lordosis is an exaggeration of which type of curvature?
A. Lumbar
B. Thoracic
C. Cervical
D. Sacral
25. Which of the following is a passage that forms as you stack vertebrae on top of one another?
A. Vertebral Foramen
B. Transverse Foramen
C. Intervertebral Foramen
D. Foramen Magnum
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
26. If you were handed a cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae from the same cadaver, what would you look for
to distinguish the thoracic vertebrae?
A. Transverse foramen should be present
B. Costal facets should be present
C. It should have the largest vertebral body
D. The transverse processes should point perpendicular to the spinous process
27. The upper extremity interfaces with the axial skeleton at the __________joint; the lower extremity interfaces
with the axial skeleton at the ___________joint.
A. Sterno-Clavicular; Sacro-Iliac
B. Gleno-Humaral; Coxal
C. Elbow; Knee
D. Radio-Carpal; Tibial-Tarsal
28. Which bone is coined as the “sitting bone”?
A. Ilium
B. Sacrum
C. Pubic
D. Ischium
29. ____ fractures are common in children and infants during childbirth; _____fractures are common in the elderly.
A. Fontanelle; Osteoporotic
B. Clavicular; Hip
C. Humeral; Femoral
D. Radial; Fibular
30. When comparing the upper and lower extremity, the following similarities exists except.
A. Both the big toe and thumb have two phalanges while the rest of the digits have three.
B. They both have multiple bones forming a girdle that connects the limbs to the axial skeleton.
C. They both have a single long bone in the proximal limb joined to a girdle.
D. They both have two long bones in the distal limb that have significant movement relative to one
another.
Lecture#4: Joints and Movement
31. Articular Cartilage differs from the hyaline costal cartilage in the ribcage because:
A. Articular cartilage does not have a perichondrium
B. Articular cartilage is a type of fibrous cartilage
C. Articular cartilage is vascularized
D. Articular cartilage is a type of elastic cartilage
32. Which of the following structures is contained within the synovial/articular capsule of the knee?
A. Medial Collateral Ligament
B. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
C. Popliteal Ligament
D. Patellar Ligament
33. What type of bone growth occurs normally in adults, especially in response to weight bearing
exercise?
A. Endochondral
B. Intramembranous
C. Appositional
D. Osteoporotic
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
34. As stability at a joint____________, mobility of the joint tends to_________________.
A. Increases, Increase
B. Increases, Decrease
C. Decreases, Decrease
35. An example of a amphiarthrotic joint would be:
A. The Gleno-Humerol Joint
B. The Pubic Symphysis Joint
C. The Patellar – Femoral Joint
D. The Occipital – Parietal Joint
36. Shoulder pain that results from the tendon of the supraspinatus muscle rubbing over the coraco-acromial
ligament and the deltoid muscle might be classified as a type of:
A. Bursitis
B. Sprain
C. Subluxation
D. Osteoarthritis
37. Which of the following has direct connectivity with the transverse acetabular ligament?
A. The femoral head
B. The ligament of the femoral head
C. The pubofemoral ligament
D. The ischiofemoral ligament
38. Which of the following is a ball and socket joint?
A. The ulnar – humeral joint
B. The atlas axis joint
C. The coxal joint
D. The tibia – tarsal joint
39. As a consequence of epiphyseal closure, ___________joints become _____________ joints. (some of this
terminology is not required for the exam, but still try to arrive at the correct answer via process of elimination)
A. Diarthrotic; Synarthrotic
B. Amphiarthrotic; Synarthrotic
C. Sychondrotic; Synostotic
D. Syndesmotic; Sutured
40. The following structure is especially important
for the man pictured to the right:
A. Dens of the Axis
B. Lateral Meniscus Cartilage
C. Transverse Acetabular Ligament
D. Intrapatellar Bursae
Lectures #5-7: Muscles – Actions and Innervation
41. What type of motion increases the angle between articulating bones?
A. Extension
B. Flexion
C. Abduction
D. External rotation
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
42. Which muscle can perform action at three separate joints?
A. Deltoid Muscle
B. Biceps Brachii
C. Rectus Femoris
D. Sartorius
43. The following muscle can perform extension at one joint and flexion at another:
A. Biceps Brachii
B. Rectus Abdominus
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Rectus Femoris
44. The primary muscles of mastication are:
A. Temporalis and Frontalis
B. Temporalis and Masseter
C. Masseter and Sternocleidomastoid
D. Trapezius and Sternocleidomastoid
45. All of the following muscles can perform adduction at a joint except:
A. Pectoralis Major
B. Pectinius
C. Tensor Fasciae Latae
D. Latissimus Dorsi
46. Damage to the axillary nerve would result in severely reduced ability to:
A. Extend the forearm at the elbow joint
B. Abduct the arm at the shoulder joint
C. Adduct the arm at the shoulder joint
D. Medially/Internally rotate the arm at the shoulder joint
47. Damage to the ulnar nerve would result in severely reduced ability to:
A. Extend the forearm at the elbow joint
B. Flex the forearm at the elbow joint
C. Perform precision tasks with the hands/fingers
D. Manipulate the thumb
48. Which of the following pairs of muscles can operate as synergists in one type of action and antagonists at
another type of action at the same joint?
A. Rectus Femoris and Biceps Femoris
B. Gastrocnemius and Soleus
C. Teres Major and Teres Minor
D. Tibialis Anterior and Fibularis Longus
49. Which of the following muscles does not attach at any point to the ribcage?
A. Pectoralis Minor
B. Iliacus
C. Rectus Abdominus
D. Serratus Anterior
50. The two actions of the Tibialis Anterior Muscle are:
A. Dorsiflexion and Inversion of the Foot
B. Plantarflexion and Inversion of the Foor
C. Dorsiflexion and Eversion of the Foot
D. Plantarflexion and Eversion of the Foot
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
51. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve would cause inability to:
A. Flex the wrist and digits
B. Flex the forearm at the elbow joint
C. Flex the arm at the shoulder joint
D. Manipulate the thumb
52. What nerve do you find in the femoral triangle?
A. Femoral Nerve
B. Obturator Nerve
C. Sciatic Nerve
D. Fibular Nerve
53. The following muscles are innervated by the obturator nerve except:
A. Gracilis
B. Biceps Femoris
C. Pectineus
D. Adductor Magnus
54. Depending on the action, the muscles of the deep group of the leg can be synergistic OR antagonistic with with
muscle?
A. Tibialis Anterior
B. Soleus
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Extensor Hallucis Longus
55. Which of the following is a list of muscles that can all be synergists in a particular action?
A. Rectus Femoris; Sartorius; Gluteus Maximus
B. Deltoid; Pectoralis Major; Supraspinatus
C. Masseter; Sternocleidomastoid; Temporalis
D. Soleus; Gastrocnemius; Fibularis Longus
56. All of the following options list two muscles that are superficial/deep to each other. Which of the following
does not list the superficial muscle first?
A. Deltoid; Supraspinatus
B. Semitendinosus; Semimembranosus
C. Vastus Intermedius; Rectus Femoris
D. Gastrocnemius; Soleus
57. Which of the following is not a part of the hamstring group?
A. Rectus Femoris
B. Biceps Femoris
C. Semitendinosus
D. Semimembranosus
58. What two muscles share the Ilio-Tibial Tract as a common tendon?
A. Gluteus Maxiumus and Gluteus Medius
B. Gluteus Maximus and Tensor Fasciae Latae
C. Iliacus and Psoas Major
D. Vastus Lateralis and Biceps Femoris
59. The tibial nerve and common fibular nerve both derive from the:
A. Femoral Nerve
B. Sciatic Nerve
C. Gluteal Nerve
D. Obturator Nerve
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October 4, 2009
ANPS 19 Practice Exam #2
60. Contraction (shortening) of the left sternocleidomastoid muscle results in:
A. Right rotation of the neck
B. Left rotation of the neck
C. Elevation of the mandible
D. Abduction of the humerus at the shoulder
61. Which of the following muscles does not cross both the hip joint and the knee joint?
A. Sartorius
B. Semimembranosis
C. Gracilis
D. Pectineus
62. What muscle must increases in length as the brachialis muscle contracts and shortens in length?
A. Triceps Brachii
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps Brachii
D. Latissimus Dorsi
63. Which of the following muscles does not attach to the scapula ?
A. Pectoralis Minor
B. Pectoralis Major
C. Infraspinatus
D. Deltoid
64. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the tibial nerve?
A. Tibialis Anterior
B. Fibularis Longus
C. Extensor Hallucis Longus
D. Soleus
65. A major flexor of the trunk is:
A. Latissimus Dorsi
B. Transverse Abdominus
C. Rectus Abdominus
D. Rectus Femoris
66. All of the following pairs of muscles perform essentially the same action except:
A. Fibularis Longus and Fibularis Brevis
B. Semimembranosus and Semitendinosus
C. Teres Minor and Infraspinatus
D. Pectoralis Major and Pectoralis Minor
67. All of the following pairs of muscles can be antagonists except:
A. Adductor Longus and Tensor Fasciae Latae
B. Teres Major and Teres Minor
C. Gracilis and Pectineus
D. Biceps Brachii and Tricep Brachii
68. What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff?
A. Teres Major, Teres Minor, Pectoralis Major, Latissimus Dorsi
B. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Supscapularis
C. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Teres Major
D. Pectoralis Major, Pectoralis Minor, Deltoid, Latissimus Dorsi
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