Download Exam 3 Spring 2007 and key

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Bio 309F
Examination #3
May 22, 2007
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Name________________Key___________________________
Note: please place your name, course unique number (49790, 49795, 49800, 49805, 49810) and
bubble in your answers on the scantron. We will only grade the scantron so double check to be
sure the answers on the scantron are as you want them. Through out the exam, please cover your
answers. Do not use electronic gadgets, including telephone--so, please turn off your telephone
prior to starting the exam. Turn in the scantron and the exam. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
I. Multiple Choice (2 points each, 100 points total)
1. A cloned library of an entire genome contains
A. the expressed genes in an organism
B. all the genes of an organism
C. only a representative selection of genes
D. a large number of alleles of each gene
E. none of the above
2. Which technique would be best for screening a large number of genes at the same time for
detection of mutant genes?
A. southern blotting
D. PCR
B. northern blotting
E. DNA microarray
C. western blotting
3. Enzymes that recognize a specific base sequence in a DNA molecule and cleave or nick the
DNA at that site are called:
A. DNAases
B. RNAases
C. Proteinases
D. Restriction endonucleases
E. DNA polymerase
4. Vectors used to carry DNA segments into cells for replication/cloning are usually derived
from self-replicating circular DNA molecules called:
A. Replicons
D. Chromophors
B. Recombinase
E. vesicles
C. Plasmids
5. Research studies by _________________ showed that genes or gene segments called
"jumping genes or transposons" could move to different genes on different chromosomes;
thereby, giving altered phenotypes.
A. Francis Collins
B. Bob Weinberg
C. Barbara McClintock
D. J. Craig Venter
E. Kary Mullis
6. The technique used to examine DNA fragments on filters separated by electrophoresis and
screened by either DNA or RNA probes is called:
A. Northern blotting
B. Southern blotting
C. Western blotting
D. Eastern blotting
E. South-western blotting
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7. The technique used to examine RNA transcripts on filters separated by electrophoresis and
screened by either DNA or RNA probes is called:
A. Northern blotting
B. Southern blotting
C. Western blotting
D. Eastern blotting
E. South-western blotting
8. A technique used to produce large amounts of specific DNA sequences, usually from a very
small amount of DNA, is called:
A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
B. Reverse Transcriptase (RT)
C. DNA Specific Endonuclease (DSE)
D. RNA Specific Endonuclease (RSE)
E. DNA Ligase (DL)
9. Once DNA strands are cut, which enzyme is responsible for linking the DNA strands back
together to yield an intact DNA strand?
A. DNA polymerase
D. DNA ligase
B. RNA polymerase
E. Reverse Transcriptase
C. DNA endonuclease
10. The enzyme used to convert RNA into DNA is called:
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. RNA polymerase
C. RNA endonuclease
D. RNA ligase
E. RNA terminase
11. DNA evidence at a crime scene permitted investigators to rule out a suspect as being
involved. What technique or procedure was used to permit the investigators to come to this
conclusion?
A. Western immunoblotting analyses
B. Expression plasmid analyses
C. Northern blot analyses
D. FarWestern blot analyses
E. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism analyses
12. Commercial applications of recombinant DNA technology includes the production of gene
products used in treatment of human diseases. One such gene product that is produced by human
gene transfer to bacteria and harvesting the bacterial grown gene product is:
A. Insulin
B. Albumin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Haptoglobin
E. None of the above
13. Restriction enzymes:
A. recognize specific nucleotide sequences in DNA
B. cut only one strand of DNA
C. often produce single-stranded tails
D. A and B are correct
E. A and C are correct
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14. The statement “Cancer is a genetic disorder” means:
A. Most cancers are inherited
B. Most cancers develop because of a single mutational event
C. Most cancers develop because of multiple mutational events
D. Most cancers develop because of methylation of a single gene
E. Most cancers develop because of translocations
15. Which statement regarding spontaneous cancers is false?
A. Clonal in origin
B. can occur in multiple organs or tissues
C. Defective in cell cycle regulatory controls
D. accumulate mutations to key regulatory genes
E. are genetically very homogeneous within an individual
16. How would the cell cycle be affected if you removed the phosphorylation sites in the Rb
protein?
A. The cell cycle would not be affected because pRb is not phosphorylated normally.
B. The cell cycle would be blocked in G1.
C. The cell cycle would be blocked in G2.
D. The cell cycle would be shorter.
E. none of the above
17. Using a "car and driver" analogy, which of the following accurately describes the role of
tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes in normal cells?
A. tumor-suppressor genes are the gas pedal, while oncogenes are the brakes.
B. tumor-suppressor genes are the brakes while oncogenes are the gas.
C. both tumor-suppressor genes and oncogenes are like the gas pedal
D. tumor-suppressor genes are like the steering wheel, and oncogenes are like the turn signals.
E. both tumor suppressor genes and oncogenes are like the brakes
18.
A.
B.
C.
What was the proto-oncogene that gave rise to the oncogene ERB-B/ Her2/Neu?
Rb
D. E2F
P53
E. GAG
EGFR
19.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bishop and Varnus were pioneers in the discovery of:
p53
Rb
Oncogenes
Transcription factors
None of the above
20. Chemical carcinogens, such as the multitude of carcinogens in cigarettes, can cause cancer
by a pathway designated as:
A. initiation, promotion, and tumor progression
B. immune cell loss and immune suppression
C. cell proliferation and differentiation
D. altered landscape
E. none of the above
21. The cancer that kills the most women each year is
A. breast
D. liver
B. lung
E. colon
C. cervical
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22. A cancer that remained constant in size for some time starts to grow very fast. Which gene
was most likely mutated to cause the rapid increase in tumor size?
A. EGFR
D. ERB-B
B. p53
E. CDK
C. E2F
23. ________ is a component of cigarette smoke and is one of the most potent mutagens and
carcinogens known. This mutagen/carcinogen causes “signature” mutations at specific sites in
the p53 gene.
A. phorbol ester
B. mustard gas
C. aflatoxin
D. benzo(a)pyrene (and it’s metabolites)
E. taraisoprene (and it’s metabolites)
24. Movement of cancer cells from the primary site of origin to another site is referred to as
A. translocation
B. locomotion
C. metastasis
D. metamorphosis
E. none of the above
25. An IgG antibody is composed of:
A. One heavy chain and one light chain
B. two heavy chains and two light chains
C. two heavy chains and one light chain
D. heavy chains only
E. none of the above
26. Which statement best describes the difference between primary and secondary antibody
responses?
A. IgM is the main antibody in the primary response and IgG in the secondary response
B. IgA is the main antibody in the primary response and IgG in the secondary response
C. IgG is the main antibody in the primary response and IgM in the secondary response
D. IgG is the main antibody in the primary response and IgA in the secondary response
E. IgE is the main antibody in the primary response and IgG in the secondary response
27. Her-2/Neu is an example of:
A. tumor suppressor gene
B. oncogene
C. tumorigenesis gene
D. non-chromosomal gene
E. none of the above
28. Rb is an example of:
A. tumor suppressor gene
B. oncogene
C. tumorigenesis gene
D. non-chromosomal gene
E. none of the above
29. The genome of non-transforming retroviruses is composed of:
A. long terminal repeats
D. env gene
B. gag gene
E. all of the above
C. pol gene
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30. The probability that cancer will develop is greatly increased if a particular human cell
possesses:
A. 23 pairs of chromosomes
B. mutation of LDL receptor gene
C. mutation of cystic fibrosis gene
D. mutation of beta hemoglobin gene
E. mutation of DNA repair genes
31. The immune response system can distinguish
A. self from non-self
D. A & B are correct
B. altered self
E. A, B, & C are correct
C. foreign pathogens
32. The two branches of the immune response system are referred to as:
A. immune and non-immune
B. specificity and non-specificity
C. functional and non-functional
D. humoral and cellular
E. none of the above
33. Lymphoid cells mature into T cells in an organ called:
A. lymph node
B. spleen
C. thymus
D. bursa or bursa equivalent
E. thyroid
34. The cell type that secretes antibodies (immunoglobulins, Ig) are referred to as:
A. T helper cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. B cells or plasma cells
D. Macrophages
E. Accessory cells
35. The specificity region of an antibody is referred to as:
A. Fd
D. Fj
B. Fi
E. Fab
C. Fc
36. The class of antibody (Ig) that crosses the placenta into the fetus is:
A. IgM
D. IgE
B. IgG
E. IgD
C. IgA
37. The class of antibody (Ig) that causes allergies is:
A. IgM
D. IgE
B. IgG
E. IgD
C. IgA
38. An immune disorder in humans where the immune response system destroys self is called
A. retroviral response
B. anaphylaxis
C. autoimmune disease
D. transplantation rejection
E. immune tolerance
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39. Tumor cells within an individual are recognized as altered self and destroyed by:
A. T helper cells
D. cytotoxic T cells
B. antigen presenting cells
E. stromal cells
C. B cells
40. Which statement best describes what happens in allergic reactions?
A. Fab portion of antibody binds to Fab receptor on cytotoxic T cells
B. Fc portion of antibody binds to Fc receptor on cytotoxic T cells
C. Fab portion of antibody binds to Fab receptor on mast cells
D. Fc portion of antibody binds to Fc receptor on mast cells
E. IgM antibody triggers the allergic reaction
41. A young girl is in need of a kidney transplant. There are several potential donors. Which
person would be the best (most compatible) for donation of a kidney to this girl?
A. mother
D. non-identical sister
B. father
E. identical sister
C. brother
42. AIDS, acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused by infection by a retrovirus called
HIV. Dysfunction of the immune response system occurs because HIV infects ________ cells
and destroys the cells.
A. B immune cells
D. Plasma cells
B. T helper cells
E. Cytotoxic T cells
C. T suppressor cells
43. Due to an accident, a man is rushed to a medical center near death due to blood loss. There
isn't time to match blood types so the physician saved the mans life by giving him a transfusion
of red blood cells (RBC) only from which blood type?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
44. Due to another accident, a woman is rushed to a medical center near death due to blood loss.
There isn't time to match blood types so the physician saved the woman's life by giving a
transfusion of plasma (serum) only isolated from which blood type?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
45. A person of blood type B can give whole blood (RBC + plasma) to individuals of blood type
_________ without causing problems
A. blood type A
D. blood type O
B. blood type B
E. B and D are correct
C. blood type AB
46. Genes that are said to show "linkage":
A. share exons
B. are located near each other on the same chromosome
C. same genes are found on different chromosomes
D. are located only on the X chromosome
E. are located only on the autosomal chromosomes
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47. Nude mice do not have
A. spleen
D. kidney
B. bursa
E. lymphnodes
C. thymus
48. Which of the following best describes the process of DNA sequencing?
A. DNA is separated on a gel, and the different bands are then labeled with fluorescent
nucleotides and scanned with a laser.
B. A laser is used to fluorescently label the nucleotides present within DNA, the DNA is run on
a gel, and then the DNA is broken into fragments.
C. Nucleotides are scanned with a laser and incorporated into the DNA that has been separated
on a gel, and then the DNA is amplified using PCR.
D. Fragments of DNA are produced in a reaction that labels them with any of four different
fluorescent dyes, and the fragments are then run on a gel and scanned with a laser.
E. DNA is broken down into its constituent nucleotides, and the nucleotides are then run on a
gel and purified using a laser.
49. The ability of the immune system to secrete antibodies with specificity to a diverse array of
foreign substances is due to:
A. antibody proteins generate specificity by folding around foreign antigens
B. humans have multiple V-region heavy chain genes with specificity to foreign antigens.
C. humans have multiple V-region light chain genes with specificity to foreign antigens.
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
50. A couple have four children: one is normal (no retinoblastoma), one has early onset
retinoblastoma in both eyes and two have late onset retinobastoma in one eye only. What are
the genotypes of the parents?
Mother
Father
A.
Rb+/Rb+
Rb+/Rb+
B.
Rb+/Rb+
Rb+/RbC.
Rb+/RbRb+/Rb+
D.
Rb+/RbRb+/RbE.
Rb+/RbRb-/Rb_________________________
NOTE: Tuesday, May 1 class.
1. Evaluation of the course TA and instructor
2. Scores for the third exam and final course grade based on three exams will be available
Thursday, May 3 class will review material for students who plan to take the final exam.
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NOTE CONCERNING YOUR FINAL GRADE: YOU HAVE THE OPTION OF TAKING
THE FINAL AND DROPPING THE LOWEST GRADE FOR EXAM 1, 2 OR 3.
Determination of Course Grade:
Exam 1
____________
Exam 2
____________
Exam 3
____________
Grade Point Total
_____________
COURSE GRADE________
Note: Final grade is determined on total number of points not on the average of three exams
A = 270 or greater pts, B = 240-269 pts, C = 210-239 pts, D = 180-209 pts. F = 179 or below